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that if one unintentionally separates terumah using impure produce              his poor lineage? Rav Yehudah advised him to travel to a place where
               for pure produce, the terumah is valid, although he has committed               people did not know him, and to conceal his origins, or to marry a
               a sin. Why is this so? Why not say that the terumah was a mistake,              Jewish girl who, like him, was born to a Jewish mother and a gentile
               for had he known the fruits were ritually unclean, he would not have            father. The question arises: How could Rav Yehudah advise him to
               separated from them? In this way, we could spare him the violation              deceive a Jewish girl by concealing his origins?
               of a Torah prohibition. The Jerusalem Talmud answers, that were we                 This question was addressed by the Kehilas Yaakov (Yevamos 44),
               to rule that the terumah is invalid, he would then have violated the            and his answer is that even though a girl would not initially agree
               even more stringent prohibition of eating tevel (untithed produce). It          to the match, once they are already married and attached to the
               is preferable to rule that he violated the less stringent prohibition of        each other by a bond of love, one can assume that she will not seek
               using ritually unclean produce as terumah for pure produce.                     a divorce due to her husband’s origins. Divorce is difficult, and who
                  The same applies to the marriage band. Although he paid the price            knows if she would find another mate? Therefore, since, bedieved, she
               of a gold ring and received a copper one, we say that he was satisfied          would accept him once married, the fact that he did not reveal his
               with it, so as not to rule that he was guilty of living with a woman            origins is not considered deception.
               without proper kiddushin.                                                          It seems that this would be the halacha in our case as well. If some-
                  The same applies if he married a woman on the presumption that               one concealed a defect for which the woman would not seek a divorce
               she is a virgin. Although he discovered that she was not a virgin,              once married, the marriage is not considered a mistaken transaction.
               nevertheless, since he lived with her for a long time, we rule that he
               forgave this blemish, so as not to classify their marriage as a mistaken            1    AnsweR to Question 3
               transaction.
                  Specifically, in our case, there is further reason to claim that the         In Responsa Teshuvos V’hanhagos (Vol. 2 #624) it says that if an illness
               marriage was not a mistaken transaction. Think of it this way: A                was completely healed, and expert physicians assure us that there are
               man marries a woman and discovers, fifteen years later, that she has            no traces left of the illness, and there is no concern about the future,
               multiple sclerosis. Do we say that the original marriage transaction            then there is a difference between a man and a woman.  For a man,
               was mistaken because the illness was probably present in her body               one does not have to reveal the illness at all once he is completely
               fifteen years back?! If so, no Jewish woman would remain halachically           cured. For a woman, on the other hand, one must reckon with the fact
               married! There are many women who were presumed healthy at the                  that childbirth can cause the disease to return. Therefore, if the expert
               time of marriage and diagnosed with illnesses some years later. These           physician says that the illness was due to a specific reason and there
               illnesses were likely to have been present even before their marriage.          is no chance that the illness will return even close to childbirth, then
               Do we say that marriage is invalidated? If a woman, for example is              one need not reveal the illness once the woman is completely healthy.
               diagnosed with cancer five years after her marriage, do we say that             If there is a chance that the illness will return during childbirth, then
               the marriage was a mistake and invalid retroactively? The answer, of            one must reveal it.
               course, is that since the woman had a presumption of being healthy,
               there is no deception on her part, and it is not a mistaken transaction.            1    AnsweR to Question 4
                  It says in Tractate Berachos (28a): “Let a man use a cup of honor for
               one day, even if it breaks the next day. If it breaks, then so be it.” Like-    Before we answer this question, let us illustrate the point with a




        48               1  Medical-HalacHic Responsa of Rav ZilbeRstein                       Groom Sufers from Mental Illness  2                              21







































































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