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Blast into Math!                                   Prime nummers: indestructimle muilding mlocks



               Theorem 5.2.1. (The Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic (FTA)). Suppose n ∈ N  and n> 1. Then

               there exists a finite sequence of prime numbers

                                                             m
                                                         {p k } k=1

               such that


                                                            m

                                                       n =     p k .
                                                            k=1


               These prime numbers are called the prime factors of n . This finite sequence of prime factors is unique up
               to being re-arranged.


               Proof: To prove the theorem, just like the chocolate chip proposition, we will use induction on the
               number n . What is the base case? The first n ∈ N  with n> 1 like the theorem states is n =2. In
               that case, the set of prime factors of 2 is just  {2}, because 2 is prime. So, the theorem is true when

               n =2, and the unique finite sequence is

                                                          {2}.


               To proceed by induction, we assume the theorem is true for all integers from 2 until some unknown

               integer  n ≥ 2.  We need to then prove the theorem is true for n +1. If n +1 is a prime, then the
               unique finite sequence of prime factors is  {n +1} , and the theorem is true. If n +1 is not prime,
               then by definition of prime, there is an integer  x ∈ N  which divides  n +1 such that  x =1 and
               x = n +1. Since  x ∈ N,  and  x =1,, we know that  x> 1.  By definition of divide,


                                                  n +1 = xy,     y ∈ Z.


               Since x> 0, and n +1 > 0,  y> 0, so since  y ∈ Z , it follows that  y ∈ N . Since x> 1, we know
               that  y< n +1, because xy = n +1. Therefore,


                                            1 <x<n +1,        1 <y <n +1.


               By the induction assumption, the theorem is true for x and for y. This means that there are two finite
               sequences of primes,


                                          {p 1 ,p 2 ,...,p k } and {q 1 ,q 2 ,...,q m }


               such that


                                     x = p 1 ∗ p 2 ∗ ... ∗ p k and y = q 1 ∗ q 2 ∗ ... ∗ q m .




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