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Blast into Math!                                   Prime nummers: indestructimle muilding mlocks



               Since  Q  is the product of primes which are all at least as big as  2,  Q> 1. So,  Q ∈ N ,  Q> 1

               and  Q< n +1. By the induction assumption, the theorem is true for  Q . So, the finite sequence
               {P 2 ,...,P k+m }  is unique up to being re-arranged. This means that whenever  Q  is equal to the
               product of all the elements of a finite sequence of primes, that finite sequence is just {P 2 ,...,P k+m }
               written in some order. Since


                                                     n +1 = P 1 ∗ Q,


               by the Long Division Theorem, Q  is the unique integer such that its product with P 1  is equal to n +1.
               Therefore, the finite sequence S  consists of P 1  together with {P 2 ,...,P k+m }  in some order. But, this
               is the same as  {P 1 ,...,P k+m }. So, any finite sequence of primes whose product is n +1 is unique

               up to being re-arranged.

                                                            ♥



               To help understand the theorem, let’s do some examples. For any prime number  p, what is its unique
               prime factorization? What is the finite sequence of prime factors of p ? By definition of prime, the only
               positive integers which divide  p  are 1 and  p . Since 1 is not prime, the only prime divisor of  p  is  p ,
               so its unique finite sequence of prime factors is {p}.


               Next, let’s think about composite numbers.


               Exercise: What is the smallest composite natural number?


               What is the prime factorization of the smallest composite natural number?


                                                        4= 2 ∗ 2.

               So, the finite sequence of prime factors of 4 is the set {2, 2} which is the set containing the number 2
               two times. What is the next composite number? What is its unique prime factorization?


                                                        6= 2 ∗ 3.


               The prime factors of 6 are 2 and 3. So, the finite sequence of primes {2, 3}  and the finite sequence of
               primes {3, 2}  both satisfy the theorem. But, these finite sequences are the same up to being re-arranged.


               Exercise: Pick a composite number n  and follow the script for the proof of the FTA. Audition the actors
               and play out the script until you really understand the FTA. Don’t forget to applaud!











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